NCLEX Prioritization Practice Questions
Free 30-question NCLEX prioritization practice set with rationales covering ABCs, triage, who to see first, safety, urgent nursing priorities, and Maslow.
30 NCLEX Prioritization Practice Questions with Answers: ABCs, Safety & Nursing Priorities
Test your NCLEX prioritization skills with these 30 practice questions with answers and rationales covering airway, breathing, circulation, infection control, safety, and urgent nursing priorities. Each question includes a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is right and why the other options are wrong, so you understand the priority reasoning behind every scenario.
What you'll practice in this set: In this practice set, you'll review how to prioritize clients using ABCs, infection control, circulation, safety, neurological changes, maternal-newborn emergencies, and expected vs. unexpected findings across med-surg, pediatric, and emergency scenarios.
Practice all 30 Prioritization questions together
Work through every question on this page in one continuous NCLEX-style session — with progress tracking, Next / Previous navigation, and the same exam-day interface you'll see on test day.
Question 1: Pneumonia With New Confusion and Low Oxygen Saturation
The nurse receives change-of-shift report on four adult clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with pneumonia, new confusion, and an oxygen saturation of 86% first. This client has an acute breathing problem, so the priority is determined by the ABCs: airway, breathing, circulation.
Pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid in the alveoli, which interferes with oxygen movement into the blood. When oxygen levels fall, the brain may show early signs of hypoxia, such as new confusion, restlessness, or decreased level of consciousness.
The key warning sign is the combination of new mental status change and low oxygen saturation. This suggests clinical deterioration and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
The most tempting distractor is the client with heart failure and ankle edema, but 1+ dependent edema is usually a stable, expected finding in chronic heart failure. It is important to monitor, but it does not outrank impaired oxygenation.
Question 2: Low-Pressure Ventilator Alarm
A client receiving mechanical ventilation has a low-pressure alarm sounding. Which action should the nurse take first?
The correct action is to assess the client and check the ventilator tubing and connections for a leak or disconnection. A low-pressure alarm means the ventilator is not building the expected pressure, often because air is escaping from the circuit.
Use the ABCs: first determine whether the client is being ventilated and oxygenated, then rapidly correct the airway or circuit problem. The nurse should start at the client end of the circuit because that is where accidental disconnections can immediately stop effective ventilation.
The key mechanism is simple: if the circuit is open or leaking, delivered breaths may not reach the lungs, so tidal volume drops and hypoxemia can develop quickly.
Clinical pearl: low pressure usually suggests disconnect or leak; high pressure usually suggests obstruction or resistance.
The most tempting distractor is suctioning, but suctioning is used when secretions obstruct airflow and typically triggers a high-pressure alarm, not a low-pressure alarm.
Question 3: Inhalation Injury After House Fire
A client arrives in the emergency department after being rescued from a house fire. Which finding is the priority for the nurse to report immediately?
The priority finding is hoarseness with soot around the mouth because it suggests a possible inhalation injury.
Use the ABCs: airway comes before skin wounds, pain, and emotional distress. A burn client can look stable at first, but airway swelling can worsen quickly and block airflow.
Smoke and heat can irritate and injure the upper airway. This causes inflammation and edema, which may lead to increasing hoarseness, stridor, respiratory distress, or obstruction.
Clinical pearl: Facial burns, singed nasal hairs, soot in the mouth or sputum, hoarseness, and stridor are warning signs of airway involvement after a fire.
Blistered forearms and severe pain need treatment, but they are not as urgent as a potentially closing airway.
Question 4: Asthma Exacerbation — Silent Chest
A nurse is assessing an adult client who is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
The most concerning finding is a sudden absence of wheezing with minimal air movement. In asthma, wheezing occurs when air moves through narrowed airways; if air movement becomes very poor, the chest may become quiet.
This is a priority because of the ABCs: airway and breathing problems come first. A “silent chest” can mean severe airway obstruction and possible impending respiratory failure.
During an asthma attack, bronchospasm, airway swelling, and mucus narrow the bronchi. As the obstruction worsens, less air can enter and leave the lungs, causing poor ventilation and rising risk for hypoxemia and carbon dioxide retention.
Clinical pearl: Do not assume that less wheezing means improvement during a severe attack. Less wheezing plus poor air movement is an emergency.
The most tempting distractor is accessory muscle use. It is concerning, but it is not as dangerous as suddenly decreased breath sounds with minimal airflow.
Question 5: COPD With Hypoventilation
The nurse is assessing an adult client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
The priority finding is a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. This is too slow for an adult and suggests hypoventilation, meaning the client may not be moving enough air.
Use the ABCs: breathing problems are urgent. In COPD, poor ventilation can lead to carbon dioxide retention, respiratory acidosis, decreased level of consciousness, and respiratory failure.
Expected chronic COPD findings include a barrel-shaped chest, pursed-lip breathing after activity, and a productive morning cough. These still need routine assessment, but they are not the immediate threat.
Clinical pearl: In COPD, a sudden decrease in respiratory rate or mental status can be more dangerous than fast breathing because it may signal fatigue and impending respiratory failure.
The most tempting distractor is pursed-lip breathing, but this is often a helpful technique clients use to keep airways open during exhalation.
Question 6: Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
The nurse is receiving shift report on four adult clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with suspected pulmonary embolism first because sudden shortness of breath and chest pain can signal an acute blockage in the pulmonary circulation.
Use the ABCs: breathing and circulation problems come before pain, low-grade fever, or chronic joint stiffness.
In a pulmonary embolism, a clot blocks blood flow through part of the lung. This can reduce oxygenation, strain the right side of the heart, and quickly lead to shock or cardiac arrest.
Clinical pearl: sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, hypoxemia, or hemoptysis should raise concern for pulmonary embolism and requires rapid assessment.
The most tempting distractor is the client with a kidney stone because renal colic can cause severe pain. Pain matters, but it is lower priority than an acute breathing and circulation emergency.
Question 7: Tetralogy of Fallot With Low Oxygen Saturation
The nurse is assessing an infant with Tetralogy of Fallot during a clinic visit. Which assessment finding is the priority for the nurse to report?
The priority finding is an oxygen saturation of 78% after crying. This indicates serious hypoxemia and may signal a hypercyanotic “tet” spell.
Using the ABCs, oxygenation is always more urgent than expected chronic findings. A murmur and tiring with feeding can occur with Tetralogy of Fallot, but a very low oxygen saturation shows the infant is not getting enough oxygen to the body.
In Tetralogy of Fallot, decreased blood flow to the lungs and a right-to-left shunt allow deoxygenated blood to enter systemic circulation. Crying, feeding, or agitation can worsen the shunt and trigger sudden cyanosis.
Clinical pearl: sudden cyanosis after crying or feeding in an infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is an emergency cue. The nurse should keep the infant calm, position the infant to reduce shunting, provide oxygen as prescribed, and seek rapid provider support.
The most tempting distractor is tiring during feeding because it is a real concern in congenital heart disease. However, it is usually a chronic problem related to increased energy demand, not the immediate threat that a saturation of 78% represents.
Question 8: Postpartum Hemorrhage — Boggy Uterus
A nurse is assessing several clients during the first 48 hours after birth. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
The priority finding is a soft, boggy fundus with heavy bright-red bleeding. This suggests uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
Using the ABCs and circulation priority, active bleeding comes before expected postpartum discomforts. The client can lose blood quickly, leading to hypovolemia and shock.
After birth, the uterus must contract firmly to compress the blood vessels at the placental site. If the uterus stays soft, those vessels remain open and bleeding continues.
Clinical pearl: a boggy postpartum fundus is never ignored. The nurse should massage the fundus, assess for bladder distention, quantify bleeding, monitor vital signs, call for help, and prepare uterotonic therapy as prescribed.
The most tempting distractor is burning with urination because it may indicate a urinary problem, but it is not usually an immediate life threat. Hemorrhage is the finding that requires urgent intervention.
Question 9: Large-Volume Hematemesis
A client in the emergency department vomits 800 mL of bright-red blood and reports feeling faint. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
The correct answer is start isotonic IV fluid replacement. Vomiting a large amount of bright-red blood means the client may be losing circulating volume quickly, which can lead to hypovolemic shock.
This question uses the ABCs priority framework, especially circulation. After major blood loss, restoring intravascular volume is time-sensitive while the team prepares for labs, blood products, and treatment to stop the bleeding.
The key pathophysiology is simple: blood loss lowers venous return, which lowers cardiac output, which reduces tissue perfusion. Feeling faint is a warning sign that perfusion may already be dropping.
Clinical pearl: active hematemesis is an emergency. Keep the client NPO, protect the airway, establish IV access, monitor vital signs closely, and prepare for definitive treatment such as endoscopy.
The most tempting distractor is oral fluids, but that is unsafe because the client is actively vomiting and may aspirate. Oral fluids also cannot replace acute intravascular volume loss fast enough.
Question 10: Upper GI Bleeding
The nurse receives change-of-shift report for four adult clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with peptic ulcer disease, dizziness, and black, tarry stools first. Black, tarry stools suggest melena, which is digested blood from a possible upper gastrointestinal bleed.
Dizziness is the warning sign that makes this urgent because it can mean decreased circulating blood volume and early shock. Using the ABCs, circulation problems from active bleeding take priority over stable, chronic, or expected symptoms.
- Melena + dizziness = possible hemorrhage and hypovolemia.
- Joint stiffness = chronic osteoarthritis symptom.
- Sneezing = nonurgent allergy symptom unless airway swelling or respiratory distress occurs.
- Mild nausea after antibiotics = common and usually manageable unless severe or associated with dehydration or allergic reaction.
The key clinical pearl is: dark, tarry stool with lightheadedness is not just a GI symptom; it can be a circulation emergency.
Question 11: Severe Hypertension After AAA Repair
A client has returned to the surgical unit after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
The priority finding is severe hypertension. After abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, very high blood pressure places extra force on the vascular graft and suture lines, increasing the risk for bleeding, graft disruption, or rupture.
This question uses a recognize-cues approach: the nurse must identify which postoperative finding is unsafe rather than expected. In priority setting, circulation is the key issue because the surgical repair involves a major artery.
The pathophysiology is pressure-related: higher arterial pressure increases stress on the repaired aorta. The repaired vessel site must be protected from both hypertension, which can strain the repair, and hypotension, which can reduce organ perfusion.
Clinical pearl: after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, monitor blood pressure, peripheral pulses, urine output, abdominal distention, incisional bleeding, and new severe abdominal or back pain.
The most tempting distractor is urine output, because renal perfusion is important after this surgery. However, 45 mL/hr is acceptable for an adult; a low or falling urine output would be concerning.
Question 12: Acute Coronary Syndrome
The nurse is caring for four adult clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with crushing chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath first because these findings suggest acute coronary syndrome or myocardial infarction.
Use priority frameworks: unstable before stable, acute before chronic, and threats to circulation before routine needs.
In acute coronary syndrome, reduced coronary blood flow causes myocardial ischemia; if blood flow is not restored, heart muscle can be damaged and life-threatening dysrhythmias can occur.
Clinical pearl: chest pain with diaphoresis, dyspnea, nausea, weakness, or a sense of impending doom is more concerning than predictable discomfort relieved by rest.
The most tempting distractor is stable angina, but that pattern is expected and relieved by rest, making it less urgent than new or severe symptoms suggesting an evolving cardiac event.
Question 13: Tumor Lysis Syndrome — Hyperkalemia
A nurse is caring for a client with tumor lysis syndrome. The client’s serum potassium level is 6.4 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
The correct priority is to place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring and notify the health care provider. A potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L is dangerously high and can trigger life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Use the priority framework of circulation and safety: severe hyperkalemia can affect cardiac conduction immediately, so rhythm monitoring and rapid escalation come before routine or delayed actions.
In tumor lysis syndrome, cancer cells break apart and release intracellular contents into the blood. Potassium rises quickly, phosphate rises, calcium may fall, uric acid increases, and kidney injury can develop.
Clinical pearl: hyperkalemia may cause ECG changes such as peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, or ventricular dysrhythmias. Do not wait for symptoms before acting on severe hyperkalemia.
The tempting wrong choices involve giving or encouraging potassium, but that would worsen the problem. Potassium replacement is for hypokalemia, not tumor lysis syndrome with severe hyperkalemia.
Question 14: Cellulitis With Possible Sepsis
The nurse is preparing to begin assessments for four assigned adult clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with cellulitis, fever, and a heart rate of 132/min first. A local infection with systemic signs can mean the infection is spreading and may be progressing toward sepsis.
The priority framework is unstable before stable and acute before chronic. Fever plus marked tachycardia is more concerning than chronic pain, mild allergy symptoms, or constipation because it signals possible physiologic deterioration.
Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the skin and soft tissue. If bacteria or inflammatory mediators enter the bloodstream, the body may respond with fever, tachycardia, vasodilation, capillary leak, and eventually poor tissue perfusion.
- Clinical pearl: infection plus new tachycardia should trigger a sepsis-focused assessment.
- Warning signs: hypotension, confusion, rapid respirations, decreased urine output, worsening redness, or cool/clammy skin.
The tempting distractor is chronic back pain because pain deserves timely care. However, a stable chronic pain request is lower priority than possible systemic infection.
Question 15: Suspected Tuberculosis
The triage nurse in the emergency department is assigning rooms for four clients awaiting evaluation. Which client should the nurse place in an airborne infection isolation room first?
The correct choice is the client with a cough for 4 weeks, weight loss, and night sweats because this pattern is concerning for active pulmonary tuberculosis.
The clinical reasoning is infection-control prioritization: identify which client may spread disease through the air, then isolate that client first to protect other clients, staff, and visitors.
TB spreads through tiny airborne droplet nuclei that can stay suspended in the air and be inhaled by others. A client with suspected active TB needs an airborne infection isolation room and staff should use an N95 respirator or higher-level protection.
Clinical pearl: a cough lasting several weeks with systemic symptoms such as night sweats, fever, fatigue, or weight loss should raise concern for TB until ruled out.
The most tempting distractor is vomiting and diarrhea because it sounds infectious, but gastrointestinal illness usually requires contact or enteric precautions, not airborne isolation.
Question 16: Suspected Meningococcal Disease
A client arrives at the emergency department with fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, and a petechial rash. Which nursing action is the priority?
The priority action is to initiate droplet precautions and notify the health care provider. This client’s fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, and petechial rash are highly concerning for meningococcal disease, which can spread to others and progress quickly.
The clinical reasoning framework is safety first: protect other clients and staff from transmission, then escalate care so treatment can begin quickly. Droplet precautions are used because meningococcal organisms spread through respiratory droplets.
The key pathophysiology is that Neisseria meningitidis can infect the meninges and bloodstream, causing inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, sepsis, shock, and bleeding into the skin. A petechial rash is a major warning sign because it may indicate meningococcemia.
Clinical pearl: suspected meningococcal meningitis is an emergency—do not wait to see if symptoms improve.
Offering oral fluids may seem helpful for fever, but it is not the priority and may be unsafe until neurologic status and swallowing are assessed.
Question 17: Early Influenza Treatment
An 82-year-old client reports fever, myalgias, cough, and fatigue that began 18 hours ago. Influenza is suspected. Which prescription should the nurse administer as the priority?
The priority prescription is oseltamivir. The client has suspected influenza and symptoms began only 18 hours ago, so antiviral therapy is time-sensitive.
Using the NCJMM take-actions step, the nurse selects the intervention that best addresses the current acute problem. In this case, early antiviral therapy is more important than supportive or preventive-only measures.
Oseltamivir inhibits viral neuraminidase, which helps reduce the release and spread of influenza virus from infected cells. It is most effective when started as soon as possible, ideally within 48 hours of symptom onset.
Older adults are at higher risk for complications such as pneumonia, dehydration, and hospitalization. Worsening shortness of breath, confusion, chest pain, or signs of dehydration require prompt evaluation.
The most tempting distractor is the influenza vaccine. Vaccination is important for prevention, but it does not treat an active influenza infection and should not be the only intervention for acute symptoms.
Question 18: Hypoglycemia — Assess Before Acting
The nurse enters the room of a client with diabetes mellitus and finds the client diaphoretic, tremulous, and confused. Which action should the nurse take first?
The correct first action is to obtain a capillary blood glucose level. The client’s sweating, shakiness, and confusion are classic signs of possible hypoglycemia, and bedside glucose testing gives rapid confirmation.
This uses the nursing process: assess before intervening. The nurse should not give treatment that could worsen the condition without first checking the glucose when a rapid bedside test is available.
Hypoglycemia causes the body to release stress hormones, which leads to diaphoresis and tremors. As the brain receives less glucose, confusion, seizures, or loss of consciousness can occur.
Clinical pearl: symptomatic hypoglycemia can deteriorate quickly. After confirming a low glucose level, treat promptly according to protocol and assess whether the client can safely swallow before giving oral carbohydrates.
The most dangerous distractor is insulin. Insulin lowers blood glucose, so giving it to a client who may already be hypoglycemic can cause severe neurologic injury.
Question 19: Diabetic Ketoacidosis — IV Fluids First
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which prescription should the nurse expect to implement first?
The correct priority is to begin isotonic IV fluids. In DKA, severe hyperglycemia pulls water into the urine, causing osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and decreased circulating volume.
The priority framework is circulation first: restore intravascular volume before focusing on glucose correction. Fluids improve perfusion and help the kidneys clear excess glucose and ketones.
Insulin is still essential, but acute DKA is usually treated with rapidly titratable regular insulin after fluids are started and potassium status is assessed. Insulin shifts potassium into cells, so unrecognized hypokalemia can become dangerous.
Clinical pearl: DKA treatment is not just about lowering glucose; it is about correcting dehydration, acidosis, and electrolyte imbalance.
The most tempting distractor is long-acting insulin, but long-acting insulin alone is too slow and cannot be titrated quickly enough for acute DKA.
Question 20: Adrenal Crisis
A nurse is caring for a client with adrenal insufficiency who develops hypotension, severe weakness, and vomiting. The provider suspects adrenal crisis. Which action should the nurse take as the priority?
The priority action is to give IV hydrocortisone and start isotonic IV fluids. Adrenal crisis is an emergency because the body does not have enough cortisol to maintain vascular tone, blood glucose, and the stress response.
Use the ABCs and circulation priority: a client at risk for shock needs immediate treatment to support blood pressure and perfusion. Fluids restore circulating volume, and hydrocortisone replaces the missing steroid hormone.
Key warning signs include hypotension, vomiting, severe weakness, dehydration, confusion, hypoglycemia, and possible hyperkalemia. Do not delay emergency treatment for teaching, snacks, or discharge planning.
The tempting distractor is teaching about long-term steroid use. That teaching is important later, but during a crisis the client needs rapid stabilization first.
Question 21: Sudden Severe Headache
The nurse is triaging four adult clients who report headache in the emergency department. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The priority client is the one with a sudden severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. This pattern is concerning for a neurologic emergency such as subarachnoid hemorrhage or meningitis.
The nurse uses triage priority principles: assess the client with the highest risk for rapid deterioration first. A sudden “worst headache” with meningeal signs is more dangerous than headache patterns that suggest migraine, sinus congestion, or tension headache.
In subarachnoid hemorrhage, bleeding irritates the meninges and increases pressure around the brain. In meningitis, inflammation of the meninges causes neck stiffness, photophobia, fever, and possible altered mental status.
Clinical pearl: a new, sudden, severe headache is never treated as routine until life-threatening causes are ruled out. The most tempting distractor is migraine, but a migraine history with mild nausea is less urgent when there are no new neurologic red flags.
Question 22: Acute Stroke Symptoms
The nurse is prioritizing care for four adult clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
The nurse should assess the client with sudden facial droop and slurred speech that began 30 minutes ago first. These are warning signs of an acute stroke, and stroke care is time-sensitive.
The priority framework is acute change before chronic or stable findings. A new neurologic deficit can mean reduced blood flow to brain tissue, and rapid recognition helps the team determine whether urgent stroke treatment is appropriate.
Key warning signs include:
- Face: facial droop
- Speech: slurred speech or trouble speaking
- Time: symptoms that started recently or a known last-well time
The most tempting distractor is the client with old stroke deficits, but unchanged weakness is a baseline finding, not a new emergency. In prioritization questions, the client with the new, sudden, or worsening problem usually needs assessment first.
Question 23: Compartment Syndrome
A client has a lower leg cast applied after a closed tibial fracture. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
The correct answer is the finding that suggests acute compartment syndrome: severe pain that is not relieved by opioid medication along with numbness in the toes.
This question uses the recognize cues step of clinical judgment. The nurse must identify which cast assessment finding is dangerous rather than expected.
Compartment syndrome occurs when swelling or bleeding increases pressure inside a closed muscle compartment. That pressure compresses nerves and blood vessels, causing ischemia and nerve injury.
Pain out of proportion and pain unrelieved by analgesics are early warning signs. Numbness or tingling means nerve compression may already be occurring.
Mild swelling in the first 24 hours can be expected after a fracture, so it is a tempting distractor. It becomes urgent only when paired with worsening pain or neurovascular changes.
Question 24: Severe Preeclampsia
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports a severe headache and right upper quadrant pain. The client's blood pressure is 168/108 mm Hg. Which action is the priority?
The priority is to notify the health care provider and prepare for urgent evaluation. This client has severe-range hypertension with symptoms that suggest preeclampsia with severe features.
The clinical reasoning framework is safety and urgency: symptoms of end-organ involvement in pregnancy can deteriorate quickly and require immediate escalation, not outpatient monitoring.
In preeclampsia, abnormal placental blood vessel development leads to widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm. This can reduce blood flow to the brain, liver, kidneys, placenta, and other organs.
- Severe headache can signal cerebral irritation and increased seizure risk.
- Right upper quadrant pain can signal liver involvement or HELLP syndrome.
- Severe blood pressure elevation increases the risk for stroke.
Clinical pearl: headache, visual changes, right upper quadrant or epigastric pain, shortness of breath, or decreased fetal movement in a hypertensive pregnant client should be treated as urgent.
The most tempting distractor is to have the client rest or wait for reassessment, but that is unsafe because severe preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, stroke, placental abruption, or fetal compromise.
Question 25: Newborn With Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy
A newborn born at 39 weeks’ gestation is 1 hour old. The birth record shows prolonged late decelerations, absent variability, and an umbilical arterial pH of 6.9; the newborn is being evaluated for moderate-to-severe hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
The priority is to prepare the newborn for therapeutic hypothermia evaluation. The birth history and umbilical arterial pH of 6.9 suggest severe perinatal hypoxia and possible hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy.
This is a time-sensitive priority action question. The nurse must interpret the cues, then choose the action that protects the brain and prevents further injury.
In HIE, decreased oxygen and blood flow to the brain trigger energy failure, acidosis, cell swelling, and delayed neuronal injury. Controlled cooling can slow these damaging processes in eligible term or near-term newborns with moderate-to-severe HIE.
Clinical pearl: therapeutic hypothermia works best when started early, so suspected HIE should be escalated immediately. Do not delay for routine screening, feeding, or observation only.
The tempting distractor is routine newborn care, such as metabolic screening. That screening matters, but it does not take priority over an acute neurologic emergency with a limited treatment window.
Question 26: Hypocalcemia After Thyroidectomy
A client is 10 hours postoperative after a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
The correct answer is the finding that suggests early hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be injured or temporarily impaired, which lowers parathyroid hormone and can cause serum calcium to fall.
The nurse uses recognize cues to identify the finding that signals a dangerous complication. Perioral tingling is an early sign of neuromuscular irritability from low calcium.
Do not ignore early tingling or numbness after thyroid surgery. Hypocalcemia can progress to muscle spasms, tetany, laryngospasm, dysrhythmias, or seizures.
The most tempting distractor is hoarseness. Hoarseness can be monitored after intubation or thyroid surgery, but isolated hoarseness is less urgent than a symptom that may signal worsening hypocalcemia and possible airway-threatening laryngospasm.
Question 27: AV Fistula Steal Syndrome
A client had an arteriovenous fistula created in the left forearm yesterday for hemodialysis access. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
The correct answer is the finding that shows the hand may not be getting enough blood flow. Coolness, numbness, and a weak radial pulse after arteriovenous fistula creation are warning signs of impaired circulation or possible steal syndrome.
The clinical reasoning priority is circulation. The nurse must recognize which postoperative finding is expected and which finding could mean limb ischemia.
An arteriovenous fistula connects an artery to a vein, creating high-flow access for dialysis. If too much arterial blood is diverted into the fistula, less blood may reach the hand, causing coolness, numbness, pain, weakness, or decreased pulses.
Clinical pearl: a functioning fistula should have a palpable thrill and audible bruit. The absence of these findings is concerning, but their presence is expected.
The most tempting distractor is mild swelling near the incision because swelling can suggest a complication. However, mild localized swelling is common after surgery; neurovascular compromise is the immediate concern.
Question 28: Peritonitis After Cholecystitis
The nurse is assessing a client admitted with acute cholecystitis. Which finding is most concerning?
The most concerning finding is abdominal rigidity with guarding. This can mean the inflamed gallbladder has perforated or caused peritonitis, which is a serious complication that needs immediate follow-up.
This question uses the recognize cues step of clinical judgment: the nurse must identify which assessment finding is unexpected and dangerous. Expected symptoms of cholecystitis include right upper quadrant pain, nausea after meals, and sometimes a low-grade fever.
In cholecystitis, a gallstone often blocks bile flow, causing gallbladder inflammation. If inflammation worsens, the gallbladder wall can become ischemic, gangrenous, or perforate, allowing bile and bacteria to irritate the peritoneum.
Clinical pearl: a rigid, boardlike abdomen, involuntary guarding, rebound tenderness, worsening pain, tachycardia, hypotension, or high fever can indicate an acute abdomen or sepsis. These findings are not expected and require urgent evaluation.
The most tempting distractor is right upper quadrant pain after eating, but that is a classic expected symptom of cholecystitis, not the priority complication sign.
Question 29: Excessive WBC Response to Filgrastim
A client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia is receiving filgrastim. The nurse reviews the client’s assessment findings and laboratory results. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
The correct answer is the white blood cell count of 105,000/mm3. Filgrastim stimulates the bone marrow to make neutrophils, so an extremely high white blood cell count means the client may be having an excessive medication response.
The clinical judgment step is recognize cues: the nurse must pick out the one finding that is abnormal and potentially harmful. A markedly elevated WBC count should be reported because the provider may need to hold or discontinue the medication.
Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor that helps reduce the duration of neutropenia after chemotherapy. Its expected effects come from increased bone marrow activity.
- Expected: bone pain and mild injection-site redness
- Concerning: marked leukocytosis, signs of serious allergic reaction, or left upper abdominal/shoulder pain that could suggest splenic complications
The tempting distractor is bone pain, but bone pain is common because the marrow is actively producing more white blood cells. It should be treated and monitored, but it is not the priority finding to report in this question.
Question 30: Bowel Perforation
The nurse is assessing a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which finding is most concerning?
The most concerning finding is a firm, boardlike abdomen with fever. This combination suggests possible peritonitis, bowel ischemia, or perforation, which can quickly become life-threatening.
The priority framework is recognize cues of deterioration: expected symptoms can be monitored, but unexpected signs of acute abdomen require immediate follow-up.
In a bowel obstruction, pressure builds behind the blockage. If blood flow to the bowel wall is reduced, tissue can become ischemic, necrotic, and eventually perforate, spilling bacteria and intestinal contents into the peritoneal cavity.
Clinical pearl: a rigid or boardlike abdomen, fever, worsening constant pain, rebound tenderness, tachycardia, or hypotension in a client with bowel obstruction should raise concern for peritonitis or strangulation.
Intermittent cramping and nausea are tempting distractors because they are uncomfortable and common, but they are expected findings in an uncomplicated obstruction and are less urgent than signs of perforation.
Key Takeaways From These NCLEX Prioritization Questions
Key Takeaways From These NCLEX Prioritization Questions
- Always start with ABCs: airway, breathing, and circulation come before every other priority.
- Sudden changes in neurologic status, oxygen saturation, or level of consciousness signal an urgent priority.
- Signs of shock — tachycardia, hypotension, cool skin, and altered mentation — indicate a circulation emergency.
- Use airborne, droplet, and contact precautions based on the suspected pathogen to protect other clients and staff.
- Assess before acting: confirm blood glucose, oxygen saturation, and vital signs before giving medications or treatments.
- Severe pain unrelieved by analgesia with neurovascular changes suggests compartment syndrome and must be reported immediately.
- Severe hypertension in pregnancy with headache or right upper quadrant pain suggests preeclampsia and needs urgent provider notification.
- Postoperative complications such as bleeding, perforation, hyperkalemia, and adrenal crisis must be recognized early and treated rapidly.
- The NCLEX priority is always the client who is at greatest risk for the most immediate harm.
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